ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
- C. 1+ protein in the urine
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Post maturity
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.
3. A client who practices Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse that he cannot eat certain foods during the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Serve chicken with cream sauce
- B. Avoid serving fish with fins and scales
- C. Provide unleavened bread
- D. Avoid serving foods containing lamb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism adhere to specific dietary restrictions, which include consuming unleavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with the client's religious beliefs and dietary requirements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not directly related to the dietary restrictions observed during the Passover holiday in Orthodox Judaism.
4. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
- B. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
- C. I should take this medication with food.
- D. I should avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.
5. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
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