a nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following findings should the nurse report to the pro
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

2. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking digoxin should check their pulse before each dose to ensure it is within the appropriate range. Option A is incorrect because stopping the medication based solely on a heart rate below 80/min is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as having a pulse above 100/min doesn't necessarily indicate a need to stop digoxin. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with an antacid as it can interfere with its absorption.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

4. A client with COPD is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Using pursed-lip breathing techniques is beneficial for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath by keeping airways open longer. Option A is incorrect as deep breathing while using an incentive spirometer is essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis. Option B is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation for clients with COPD. Option C is incorrect as exercising in a humid area can exacerbate breathing difficulties for clients with COPD.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

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