ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak your feet in warm water every day to prevent dryness.
- B. Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.
- C. Apply lotion between your toes after bathing.
- D. Cut your toenails in a rounded shape.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.' This is essential in diabetes mellitus as moisture can lead to infections. Choice A is incorrect as soaking feet in warm water can actually cause dryness and skin breakdown, which is harmful in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as applying lotion between the toes can create excess moisture, increasing the risk of fungal infections. Choice D is incorrect as cutting toenails in a rounded shape can lead to ingrown toenails; clients with diabetes should cut their nails straight across to prevent complications.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
4. What is the best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Monitor edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics is to monitor daily weight. Daily weighing is a precise way to assess changes in fluid status as it reflects variations in total body water. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide as accurate a measurement as daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is essential but does not directly measure fluid balance. Monitoring edema (choice D) is helpful to assess fluid status visually but may not be as sensitive as daily weight measurements in detecting subtle changes in fluid balance.
5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.
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