ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.
2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer
- B. Move the probe site every 3 hours
- C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
- D. Place a sensor on the index finger
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures accurate readings. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (Choice A) is not necessary for pulse oximetry monitoring. Heating the skin before placing the probe (Choice C) can potentially cause burns in infants. Placing a sensor on the index finger (Choice D) is not the standard practice for continuous pulse oximetry in infants.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min.
- B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has asthma and is experiencing wheezing. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider administer?
- A. Fluticasone
- B. Montelukast
- C. Albuterol
- D. Ipratropium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator used to quickly relieve bronchospasm in clients with asthma who are experiencing wheezing. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for acute wheezing. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma management, not for immediate relief of wheezing. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and not typically used as the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbation.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
- A. Sodium 138
- B. Creatinine 1.8
- C. Hemoglobin 15
- D. Potassium 4.2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.
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