Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is aspirin 325mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 2 tablets. Each tablet of aspirin is 325mg. To achieve the required dose of 650mg, the nurse should administer 2 tablets. Choice A (1 tablet) is incorrect because it would only provide 325mg, which is half the required dose. Choices C (3 tablets) and D (4 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the required dose.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Report any urine output greater than 30 mL/hr.
• B. Bruising on the arms and legs.
• C. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bruising on the arms and legs is a sign of bleeding, which is a serious complication of heparin therapy and should be reported immediately to the provider. Option A is incorrect as urine output greater than 30 mL/hr is a normal finding. Option C, positive Trousseau's sign, is associated with hypocalcemia, not heparin therapy. Option D, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range and does not indicate a complication of heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Crush all medications and administer them all at once.
• B. Flush the NG tube before and after each medication.
• C. Administer only liquid forms of medications.
• D. Skip flushing the tube entirely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Flush the NG tube before and after each medication.' Flushing the NG tube is essential to ensure that the medication passes through smoothly without any obstruction. It helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that the full dose of the medication reaches the patient. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because crushing all medications at once, administering only liquid forms of medications, and skipping tube flushing entirely can lead to complications such as tube blockages, incomplete medication administration, and potential harm to the client.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?

• A. Sheepskin heel pad
• B. Footboard
• C. Trochanter roll
• D. Abduction pillow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.

5. What are the signs of infection that should be monitored in a postoperative patient?

• A. Fever and chills
• B. All of the above
• C. Increased pain or tenderness
• D. Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site.' These are specific signs of infection at the surgical site that a nurse should monitor for in a postoperative patient. While fever, chills, and increased pain can also indicate infection, the most direct signs are redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site. Therefore, 'D' is the best choice as it directly relates to the site of the surgery and is crucial to monitor for potential postoperative infections.

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