Nursing Elites

1. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?

• A. Jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex
• B. Hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema
• C. Dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea
• D. Pulmonary congestion and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.

2. Which action by the nurse demonstrates effective infection control measures?

• A. Perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact.
• B. Wear gloves when administering medications.
• C. Dispose of used equipment in designated containers.
• D. Wear a mask when interacting with the patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact. Effective hand hygiene is a fundamental infection control measure that helps prevent the spread of pathogens. Wearing gloves when administering medications (choice B) is important for protecting both the patient and the nurse but is not a direct demonstration of infection control. Disposing of used equipment in designated containers (choice C) is more related to proper waste management than infection control. Wearing a mask when interacting with the patient (choice D) is essential in certain situations, but hand hygiene is a more universal and critical practice for infection control.

3. A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to help maintain the integrity of the client's skin?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees
• B. Apply cornstarch to keep sensitive skin areas dry
• C. Massage the skin over the client's bony prominences
• D. Use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed. This intervention helps reduce friction and the risk of skin breakdown, aiding in the prevention of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees can help with respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. Applying cornstarch may lead to further skin irritation. Massaging over bony prominences can increase the risk of skin damage rather than maintaining skin integrity.

4. What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics, and how should they be managed?

• A. Drowsiness and dizziness, ensuring safety precautions
• B. Respiratory depression, ensuring adequate ventilation
• C. Constipation and nausea, managed with stool softeners
• D. Nausea and vomiting, managing with antiemetics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common side effects of opioid analgesics include drowsiness and dizziness. These side effects can impair a person's ability to operate machinery or drive safely. To manage these side effects, it is essential to advise patients to avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because respiratory depression, constipation, and nausea are also common side effects of opioids, but they are not the primary side effects being asked for in this question.

5. Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

• A. Identifying early signs of mental illness
• B. Preventing the occurrence of mental health problems
• C. Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration
• D. Providing a safe environment to prevent harm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.

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