Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?

• A. Hematocrit 45%
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.

2. A patient has an ankle restraint applied. Upon assessment, the nurse finds the toes a light blue color. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Immediately do a complete head-to-toe neurological assessment.
• B. Take the patient's blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and respiratory rate.
• C. Place a blanket over the feet.
• D. Remove the restraint.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to remove the restraint (Choice D). Cyanosis of the toes, indicated by a light blue color, suggests impaired circulation. The priority action is to ensure proper circulation by removing the restraint to prevent further compromise. Choices A and B are not the immediate actions needed for cyanosis related to impaired circulation. Choice C, placing a blanket over the feet, does not address the underlying issue of impaired circulation and could delay appropriate intervention.

3. What is the most appropriate method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

• A. Insert a urinary catheter using clean gloves.
• B. Limit the duration of catheter use.
• C. Use a smaller size catheter to prevent trauma.
• D. Change the catheter tubing every 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit the duration of catheter use. Limiting the duration of catheterization is a crucial method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). Prolonged catheter use increases the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, leading to infections. Using clean gloves for insertion (choice A) is important for preventing contamination but does not address the main cause of CAUTIs. Using a smaller size catheter (choice C) may help reduce trauma but does not directly prevent infections. Changing the catheter tubing every 24 hours (choice D) is not necessary unless clinically indicated, and it is not the most effective method for preventing CAUTIs.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

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