a nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.

2. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin 12 g/dL. In a client with heart failure, a decrease in hemoglobin levels can indicate anemia, which can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for appropriate management. Choice A, Potassium 4.0 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically require immediate reporting. Choice C, BUN 18 mg/dL, and Choice D, Sodium 137 mEq/L, are also within normal ranges and not directly related to heart failure management. Therefore, the hemoglobin level is the most critical finding to report in this scenario.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.

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