a nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is a common early manifestation of hypoglycemia. When blood glucose levels drop, the brain perceives this as a stressor, leading to irritability. Abdominal cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hypoglycemia but can occur with other gastrointestinal issues. Increased thirst (choice C) is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia. Blurred vision (choice D) is a symptom more commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.

3. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT for a patient receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess and adjust heparin dosage to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Monitoring the aPTT helps in preventing both clotting and bleeding complications. Platelet count (Choice A) is important to monitor for patients receiving antiplatelet therapy, not heparin. PT/INR (Choice B) is typically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring the complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) is essential for various conditions but is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

4. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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