ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A client expresses fear of surgery. Which response should the nurse make?
- A. Explain the risks of the surgery in detail.
- B. Tell the client that many clients feel anxious before surgery.
- C. Reassure the client that the surgical team is highly experienced.
- D. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask open-ended questions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses fear of surgery, it is essential for the nurse to acknowledge their feelings and ask open-ended questions. This response shows empathy, validates the client's emotions, and encourages them to express their concerns further. Explaining the risks of the surgery in detail (Choice A) may increase the client's anxiety. Simply stating that many clients feel anxious before surgery (Choice B) does not address the client's specific fears. While reassuring the client about the surgical team's experience (Choice C) is important, it may not directly alleviate the client's fear.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
- D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the TPN tubing every 48 hours.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- D. Monitor the client's weight every 72 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.
5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating spicy foods.
- B. Eat three large meals each day.
- C. Lie down after meals.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.
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