ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A client expresses fear of surgery. Which response should the nurse make?
- A. Explain the risks of the surgery in detail.
- B. Tell the client that many clients feel anxious before surgery.
- C. Reassure the client that the surgical team is highly experienced.
- D. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask open-ended questions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses fear of surgery, it is essential for the nurse to acknowledge their feelings and ask open-ended questions. This response shows empathy, validates the client's emotions, and encourages them to express their concerns further. Explaining the risks of the surgery in detail (Choice A) may increase the client's anxiety. Simply stating that many clients feel anxious before surgery (Choice B) does not address the client's specific fears. While reassuring the client about the surgical team's experience (Choice C) is important, it may not directly alleviate the client's fear.
2. A client at risk for osteoporosis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- B. I should increase my intake of vitamin D.
- C. I should reduce my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should increase my intake of vitamin D.' Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for calcium absorption, which is essential for bone health and preventing osteoporosis. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (choice A) would be detrimental as weight-bearing activities help improve bone density. Reducing dairy intake (choice C) is not recommended as dairy products are a good source of calcium. While increasing calcium intake (choice D) is important, ensuring sufficient vitamin D levels for proper absorption is equally crucial for bone health.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in the supine position.
- B. Perform chest percussion every 4 hours.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
- B. The client develops hiccups.
- C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
- D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.
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