Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
• B. Empty the pouch when it is one-third full.
• C. Change the entire pouching system weekly.
• D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
• C. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• D. INR of 2.0

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 96%
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Dry skin.
• C. Increased thirst.
• D. Increased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.

5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.

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