Nursing Elites

1. During a mental health assessment on an adult client, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

• A. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship
• B. Achieving a sense of self-confidence
• C. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential
• D. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential reflects self-actualization. This level represents achieving personal growth, self-improvement, and reaching one's full potential, indicating optimal mental health. Choices A, B, and D represent lower levels of needs according to Maslow's hierarchy. Maintaining a long-term relationship indicates belongingness and love needs, achieving self-confidence pertains to esteem needs, and developing a sense of purpose relates to self-esteem and self-actualization needs, but they are not at the pinnacle of self-actualization as in choice C.

2. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

• A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
• B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
• C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
• D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

3. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

• A. Short-term memory loss
• B. Headache
• C. Confusion
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can have side effects such as short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, particularly antipsychotics.

4. In treating social anxiety disorder, which medication is commonly prescribed to patients with this condition?

• A. Methylphenidate
• B. Sertraline
• C. Lithium
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat social anxiety disorder. SSRIs are a first-line pharmacological treatment for social anxiety disorder due to their effectiveness in reducing anxiety symptoms by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, which helps regulate mood and emotions. Methylphenidate is a stimulant primarily used in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) but not in social anxiety disorder. Lithium is typically used in bipolar disorder, while haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication more commonly used in conditions like schizophrenia. Therefore, the correct choice for treating social anxiety disorder is Sertraline (B).

5. A client is being assessed by a nurse after being diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain and increased appetite
• B. Lanugo on the face and back
• C. Increased body temperature and tachycardia
• D. Hyperactivity and distractibility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In anorexia nervosa, individuals often develop lanugo, fine soft hair, on the face and back. This is a physiological response to the body's attempt to conserve heat due to a lack of subcutaneous fat. It is a common physical finding in clients with anorexia nervosa and can be a sign of severe malnutrition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain and increased appetite, increased body temperature and tachycardia, and hyperactivity and distractibility are not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In fact, weight loss, decreased appetite, hypothermia, and bradycardia are more commonly seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

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