ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Therapeutic communication is the foundation of a patient-centered interview. Which of the following techniques is not considered therapeutic?
- A. Restating
- B. Encouraging description of perception
- C. Summarizing
- D. Asking 'why' questions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Asking 'why' questions is not considered a therapeutic technique in patient-centered communication as it can make patients feel defensive or judged. 'Why' questions may imply criticism or put the patient on the spot, potentially hindering open and honest communication. Instead, focusing on open-ended questions that encourage patients to express their feelings and thoughts without feeling judged or interrogated is more conducive to therapeutic communication.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the nurse expect?
- A. Flashbacks
- B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
- C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
- D. Manic episodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Findings in a client with PTSD include flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal and hypervigilance, and negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes are not typically associated with PTSD.
3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of displacement?
- A. A man kicks his dog after an argument with his boss.
- B. A woman yells at her children after a stressful day at work.
- C. A student immerses herself in studying to avoid thinking about a recent breakup.
- D. A person channels aggressive impulses into playing a sport.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Displacement involves redirecting emotions, often anger or aggression, from their original source to a less threatening target. In this scenario, the woman redirects her frustration from work towards her children, who are perceived as less threatening and safer to express anger towards.
4. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to detect and manage this side effect to prevent associated health risks such as diabetes and cardiovascular issues. Hypotension (choice B) is not a common side effect of olanzapine. Olanzapine is more likely to cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Hair loss (choice C) and hyperthyroidism (choice D) are not typically associated with olanzapine use.
5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
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