Nursing Elites

1. A woman was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. When found, she was confused and disoriented. The nurse makes the following observations about the client. She is talking rapidly in disjointed phrases, is unable to concentrate, and is indecisive when asked to make simple decisions. The client's level of anxiety can be assessed as

• A. moderate
• B. severe
• C. mild
• D. nonexistent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's presentation, including rapid and disjointed speech, inability to concentrate, and indecisiveness, are indicative of severe anxiety. These symptoms suggest a high level of distress and impairment in cognitive functioning, which aligns with severe anxiety rather than mild or moderate levels. The traumatic experience of being abducted and raped at gunpoint would likely contribute to such a severe level of anxiety.

2. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude?

• A. Continue taking medications as prescribed
• B. Avoid all social interactions
• C. Report any side effects of medications to the healthcare provider
• D. Develop a daily routine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should exclude the instruction to 'Avoid all social interactions' when providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia. It's important for individuals with schizophrenia to continue taking medications as prescribed, report any medication side effects to the healthcare provider, and develop a daily routine to promote stability. Social interactions, albeit with appropriate boundaries, can be beneficial for the client's well-being and integration into the community.

5. When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, expected findings include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more common. Hypokalemia can result from decreased intake of potassium-rich foods or excessive purging behaviors commonly seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

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