Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?

• A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
• C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
• D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.

2. A nurse is teaching the partner of a client who had a stroke about manifestations of dysphagia. Which of the following statements by the client's partner indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I will monitor my husband for coughing while he is eating
• B. I will monitor my husband for pocketing food in his mouth
• C. I will monitor for a change in my husband's voice after he swallows
• D. I will monitor my husband for tilting his head forward when he swallows

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tilting the head forward during swallowing is not a compensatory technique for dysphagia and may increase the risk of aspiration. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements indicating appropriate monitoring for manifestations of dysphagia: coughing while eating, pocketing food in the mouth, and changes in voice after swallowing are all signs that should be monitored.

3. Which patient should the nurse see first?

• A. A 1-month-old infant looking at a shiny, round battery just out of arm's reach.
• B. A 56-year-old patient with oxygen and a lighter on the bedside table.
• C. A 56-year-old patient with oxygen using an electric razor for grooming.
• D. A bedridden patient who has a reddened area on the buttocks and needs to be turned.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with oxygen and a lighter on the bedside table is at immediate risk of fire. Oxygen promotes combustion, and having a lighter nearby poses a serious safety hazard. This situation requires urgent attention to prevent a potential disaster. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening risks compared to the patient with oxygen and a lighter nearby.

4. Which of the following is a recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting?

• A. Encourage the client to express their feelings through physical activity
• B. Avoid making eye contact to prevent escalation
• C. Use pharmacological interventions immediately
• D. Maintain eye contact, offer clear choices, and set boundaries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting is to maintain eye contact, offer clear choices, and set boundaries. This approach can help de-escalate the situation by establishing communication and structure. Choice A is incorrect as encouraging physical activity may not be suitable during an aggressive episode. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding eye contact can hinder communication and resolution. Choice C is also incorrect as pharmacological interventions should not be the immediate go-to method for managing aggression unless absolutely necessary.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

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