Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?

• A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
• C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
• D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.

2. A nurse is preparing medications for a client via nasogastric tube. What should the nurse do before administering the medications?

• A. Flush the tube with water and administer all medications at once
• B. Administer medications one after the other without flushing
• C. Crush all medications and mix them together for administration
• D. Administer medications in liquid form only

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering medications through a nasogastric tube, the nurse should administer them one after the other without flushing. Flushing the tube with water should be done before and after each medication to prevent any interactions and ensure each medication is delivered effectively. The correct answer is not to administer all medications at once (choice A) as this can lead to potential drug interactions. Crushing all medications and mixing them together (choice C) is incorrect as each medication should be given separately to maintain their individual efficacy. Administering medications in liquid form only (choice D) is limiting and may not be suitable for all types of medications that need to be administered.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Inject at a 90-degree angle
• B. Inject at a 45-degree angle
• C. Massage the injection site after administering
• D. Use a longer needle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin subcutaneously at a 45-degree angle. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (Inject at a 90-degree angle) is incorrect because subcutaneous injections are usually given at a shallower angle. Option C (Massage the injection site after administering) is incorrect as massaging the site can cause bruising and should generally be avoided. Option D (Use a longer needle) is incorrect as using a longer needle is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injecting the medication too deeply.

4. What is the primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours?

• A. To improve circulation and relieve pressure.
• B. To prevent contractures and muscle atrophy.
• C. To prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers.
• D. To improve respiratory function and prevent pneumonia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours is to prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Prolonged immobility can lead to pressure ulcers, making this a crucial nursing intervention. Choice A is incorrect because while turning can help improve circulation and relieve pressure, the primary purpose is to prevent skin breakdown. Choice B is incorrect as preventing contractures and muscle atrophy is important but not the primary purpose of turning. Choice D is incorrect as improving respiratory function and preventing pneumonia are not directly related to turning and repositioning for skin integrity.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Improvement in visual acuity
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.

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