Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a group of medical-surgical patients. A fire has been reported in an adjacent wing of the hospital. What should the nurse do to ensure the patients' safety?

• A. Wait until the fire department arrives before taking action.
• B. Close all doors.
• C. Identify evacuation routes.
• D. Move bedridden patients in their beds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a fire emergency, it is crucial to close all doors to contain smoke and fire, helping to protect the patients. This action can prevent the spread of fire and smoke to the area where patients are located. Identifying evacuation routes is also important for a timely and orderly evacuation if necessary. Waiting for the fire department to arrive before taking action (Choice A) can waste valuable time and put patients at risk. Moving bedridden patients in their beds (Choice D) can be dangerous during a fire and should be avoided as it can expose patients and staff to more risks.

2. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• B. Hyoscyamine
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Phenazopyridine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.

3. After unsuccessful alternatives, a patient requires restraints. The nurse is reviewing the orders. Which findings indicate to the nurse the order is legal and appropriate for safe care?

• A. The health care provider writes the type and location of the restraint.
• B. The health care provider renews orders for restraints every 24 hours.
• C. The health care provider performs a face-to-face assessment prior to the order.
• D. The health care provider orders restraints PRN (as needed).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of restraining a patient, it is crucial for the health care provider to specify the type and location of the restraint in the order to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. This information helps guide the nursing staff in the safe application of restraints. Renewing orders every 24 hours ensures that the need for restraints is continually assessed, promoting patient safety. Performing a face-to-face assessment before ordering restraints allows for a thorough evaluation of the patient's condition and the necessity of using restraints. Ordering restraints PRN (as needed) is not appropriate for safe care as it lacks specificity and may lead to inconsistent application and monitoring.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Elevated bilirubin levels
• B. Low albumin levels
• C. Elevated ammonia levels
• D. Low hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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