a nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric ng tube what is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. When caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient with an NG tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration by promoting the proper flow of contents through the gastrointestinal tract and minimizing the chances of stomach contents entering the airway. Flushing the NG tube with water before each feeding may not directly prevent aspiration. Checking the placement of the NG tube is important but does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration. Providing oral care every 4 hours is essential for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to preventing aspiration in a patient with an NG tube.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A large bladder scan result (525 mL) suggests catheter blockage and may require irrigation to resolve. Choice B (absent urinary output for 1 hour) could indicate a different issue such as urinary retention but does not specifically indicate the need for catheter irrigation. Choices C (cloudy urine) and D (bloody urine) may suggest infection or other urinary issues, but they do not directly indicate the need for catheter irrigation.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following lab values should the provider report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 126 mEq/L. A sodium level of 126 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hyponatremia, which can have serious health implications and should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within or close to the normal ranges for magnesium, potassium, and chloride, respectively, and do not require immediate reporting as they are not significantly abnormal.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

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