Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?

• A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
• B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
• C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
• D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

2. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should be included in the teaching? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Deep breathing exercises
• B. Progressive muscle relaxation
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Cognitive restructuring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique used to challenge and change negative thought patterns, not specifically a relaxation technique. Therefore, choice D, cognitive restructuring, does not apply to relaxation techniques for managing anxiety.

3. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it difficult to differentiate between them.
• B. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.
• C. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome can experience temporary paralysis during naps.
• D. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with catatonia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.

4. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the treatment of major depressive disorder?

• A. I have been on this antidepressant for 3 days. I understand that the full effect may take weeks to occur.
• B. I am going to ask my nurse practitioner to discontinue my Prozac today and let me start taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor tomorrow.
• C. I may ask to have my medication changed to Wellbutrin due to the problems I am having being romantic with my wife.
• D. I realize that there are many antidepressants and it might take a while until we find the one that works best for me.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because the patient is planning to switch directly from Prozac, an SSRI, to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) without allowing for a washout period. This abrupt switch poses a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can be life-threatening. It is essential to educate the patient about the importance of consulting healthcare providers before changing medications to prevent potential adverse effects.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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