ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Appearance and behavior
- B. Thought processes
- C. Mood and affect
- D. The greater the cultural distance from the mainstream of society, the greater the likelihood that the illness will be treated with sensitivity and compassion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.
2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?
- A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
- B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
- C. When the client communicates significant distress
- D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.
3. A client displays signs and symptoms indicative of hypochondriasis. The nurse would initially expect to see:
- A. Self-preoccupation
- B. La belle indifference
- C. Fear of physicians
- D. Insight into the source of their fears
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypochondriasis, individuals are excessively preoccupied with and worried about having a serious illness, despite reassurance from medical professionals. This self-preoccupation is a key characteristic of hypochondriasis. 'La belle indifference' refers to a lack of concern or distress about symptoms, which is not typically seen in hypochondriasis. Fear of physicians may be present due to the individual's persistent belief in their illness despite medical reassurance. Insight into the source of their fears is usually lacking in hypochondriasis, as individuals often believe their physical symptoms are evidence of a serious illness.
4. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit, he states to a nurse: 'Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I'll look into pursuing an art degree.' How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?
- A. Irrelevant
- B. Harm/loss
- C. Threatening
- D. Challenging
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement indicates that he views the job loss as an opportunity for growth and a new direction in life rather than a threat or harm/loss. He sees it as a challenge and is considering it positively, demonstrating resilience and adaptability in the face of adversity. Choice A, 'Irrelevant,' is incorrect as the client's response shows relevance and a positive outlook. Choice B, 'Harm/loss,' is incorrect as the client does not express a sense of harm or loss but rather opportunity. Choice C, 'Threatening,' is incorrect as the client's response does not convey fear or threat but rather a positive reframe of the situation.
5. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
- B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
- C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
- D. The client maintains a stable weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.
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