a nurse is conducting a mental status examination on a client which of the following components should be included in the assessment select one that d
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.

2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Side effects of antipsychotic medications commonly include tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Muscle tension is not typically associated with antipsychotic medication use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements, orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, and hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels. Monitoring these side effects is crucial for early detection and management, but muscle tension is not a typical side effect of antipsychotic medications.

3. A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder tells the nurse, 'You are the only one who understands me. The other nurses don't care about me.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide support while also emphasizing that all staff members care about the client's well-being. Choice A does not acknowledge the client's emotions and may come across as dismissive. Choice C invalidates the client's feelings and may make the client feel misunderstood. Choice D minimizes the client's emotions, which can lead to a breakdown in therapeutic communication. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate response as it validates the client's feelings while reinforcing the idea that the entire healthcare team is supportive.

4. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

5. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

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