Nursing Elites

1. For a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior, which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Supportive therapy
• D. Pharmacotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.

2. Which response demonstrates accurate information that should be discussed with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system? Select the incorrect one.

• A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
• B. Due to the risk of a manic episode, antidepressant therapy is never used with bipolar disorder.
• C. It's critical to inform your healthcare provider immediately if you are experiencing sleep disturbances.
• D. Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing bipolar disorder, it is vital to educate the patient and their support system about triggers like alcohol and caffeine, the significance of good sleep, and the need for family involvement. However, the statement in choice B is incorrect. While antidepressants need to be carefully monitored in bipolar disorder, they can be used in conjunction with mood stabilizers to manage depression in some cases.

3. A client is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness due to the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the client's behaviors?

• A. The client's behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression.
• B. The client's behaviors are extensive, indicating the presence of mental illness.
• C. The client's behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms.
• D. The client's behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should interpret the client's behaviors as not indicative of mental illness. The client is experiencing normal feelings of sadness following the loss of a pet, and the fact that the client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine remain unchanged suggests no functional impairment. It is essential to recognize that experiencing occasional feelings of sadness in response to a significant life event, such as the death of a pet, does not necessarily signify mental illness, especially when there is no significant impairment in daily functioning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they incorrectly suggest that the client's behaviors indicate mental illness, which is not the case in this context.

4. A client states, 'I am the only one who can hear voices.' Which is the nurse's best response?

• A. Tell me more about these voices.
• B. Let's explore these voices together.
• C. How long have you been hearing these voices?
• D. Have you told anyone else about these voices?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to encourage the client to talk about their experiences with hearing voices. By asking the client to share more details about the voices, the nurse can gain insight into the nature of the auditory hallucinations and better understand the client's condition. This open-ended question allows the client to express themselves freely and helps build rapport and trust between the client and the nurse. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's statement or encourage further elaboration, making them less effective responses in this context.

5. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

Similar Questions