Nursing Elites

1. For a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior, which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Supportive therapy
• D. Pharmacotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Restlessness
• B. Fatigue
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Mania

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include restlessness, fatigue, excessive worry, and irritability. Mania is not typically associated with GAD; instead, it is a key feature of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect to find mania in a client with GAD.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. Which of the following is identified as a psychoneurotic response to severe anxiety as it appears in the DSM-5?

• A. Somatic symptom disorder
• B. Grief responses
• C. Psychosis
• D. Bipolar disorder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somatic symptom disorder. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by preoccupation with physical symptoms for which there is no demonstrable organic pathology. One of the diagnostic criteria is a high level of anxiety about health concerns or illness. In the DSM-5, somatic symptom disorders are classified under the category of somatic symptom and related disorders, which encompass conditions where psychological factors play a significant role in the development, exacerbation, or maintenance of physical symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Grief responses, psychosis, and bipolar disorder are not specifically categorized as psychoneurotic responses to severe anxiety in the DSM-5.

5. When assessing a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder who states, 'I feel like I can't go on,' which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed antidepressant medication.
• B. Ask the client if they have a plan to commit suicide.
• C. Encourage the client to attend a support group.
• D. Contact the client's family to provide support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's risk for suicide. By asking if the client has a plan to commit suicide, the nurse can determine the immediate safety of the client and take appropriate interventions to prevent harm. Administering antidepressant medication is not the first action to take in this situation as assessing the client's safety is the priority. Encouraging the client to attend a support group or contacting the client's family, although beneficial, are not immediate actions to ensure the client's safety in a crisis situation.

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