ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. For a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior, which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Supportive therapy
- D. Pharmacotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.
2. A nurse is providing education to a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select one that does not apply.
- A. I should avoid caffeine because it can increase my anxiety.
- B. I can stop taking my medication once I feel better.
- C. Practicing deep breathing exercises can help reduce my anxiety.
- D. I should gradually face situations that cause me anxiety.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Statements indicating a need for further teaching include stopping medication once feeling better and believing that medication will always be needed. Medication should be continued as prescribed, and the need for it should be regularly re-evaluated by a healthcare provider.
3. A client is experiencing panic attacks. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client manage anxiety?
- A. Encourage the client to avoid situations that trigger anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
- C. Encourage the client to take anti-anxiety medication as prescribed.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in regular physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During panic attacks, deep breathing exercises can help the client manage anxiety effectively by promoting relaxation and reducing the intensity of symptoms. Encouraging the client to practice deep breathing can provide a quick and accessible strategy to cope with the immediate distress of a panic attack. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding triggering situations may reinforce avoidance behavior, anti-anxiety medication is not the first-line intervention during a panic attack, and engaging in physical activity may not be feasible or effective during an acute episode of panic.
4. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Exposure and response prevention
- C. Interpersonal therapy
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
5. Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Norepinephrine
- C. Dopamine
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.
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