during a treatment team meeting the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

2. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is using rationalization, a common defense mechanism. Rationalization involves creating logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. In this scenario, the client is justifying excessive drinking by linking it to hard work and the need for relaxation, masking the true underlying issue of alcohol abuse. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development, and sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities, none of which are demonstrated in the client's statement.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, especially in schizophrenia, is to assess the content of the hallucinations. By asking the client to describe the hallucinations, the nurse can determine if they are command hallucinations that might pose a risk. This assessment is crucial in guiding further appropriate interventions to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice B) may not be effective, as the hallucinations are real to the client. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice C) may be necessary but should come after assessing the situation. Engaging the client in reality-based activities (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when dealing with auditory hallucinations.

4. A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering benzodiazepines as prescribed is a crucial intervention in managing alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines help alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, and seizures commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. Monitoring vital signs is important to assess the client's physiological stability, but addressing the withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines is a priority to prevent severe complications. Providing a high-protein diet and encouraging fluid intake are important for overall health but do not directly manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

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