a nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa which of the following findings shouldnt the nurse expect
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ATI Mental Health

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings shouldn't the professional expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, healthcare professionals should expect findings such as amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more commonly seen in these individuals due to malnutrition and other factors.

2. Tomas is a 21-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Tomas's nurse recognizes that self-medicating with excessive alcohol is common in this disease and can co-occur along with:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with schizophrenia often turn to excessive alcohol consumption as a way to manage symptoms of anxiety and depression. This maladaptive coping mechanism can exacerbate the challenges associated with schizophrenia and may hinder effective treatment outcomes. Recognizing the presence of anxiety and depression alongside alcohol abuse is crucial for providing holistic care and support to individuals with schizophrenia.

3. A nurse is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the family to encourage the client to avoid isolation. Social support and interaction are crucial for individuals with major depressive disorder as it can help in improving mood, reducing feelings of loneliness, and providing a sense of belonging and support. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate instructions for a client with major depressive disorder. While avoiding caffeine can be beneficial for some individuals with anxiety or sleep issues, it is not a primary intervention for major depressive disorder. Encouraging physical activity and expressing feelings are important aspects of managing depression, but avoiding isolation is more critical to address first.

4. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

5. Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the patient understands the dual benefits of bupropion (Wellbutrin) in treating depression and aiding in smoking cessation. Bupropion is commonly prescribed for these reasons as it has a lower risk of weight gain compared to other antidepressants. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate because they do not specifically reflect the benefits or key information related to bupropion therapy.

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