Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
• B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
• C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
• D. The client maintains a stable weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.

2. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• D. Administer a prescribed sedative.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

3. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Muscle tension
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Side effects of antipsychotic medications commonly include tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Muscle tension is not typically associated with antipsychotic medication use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements, orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, and hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels. Monitoring these side effects is crucial for early detection and management, but muscle tension is not a typical side effect of antipsychotic medications.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

5. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

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