ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
- B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
- C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
- D. The client maintains a stable weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.
2. Which statement about the concept of psychoses is most accurate?
- A. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive.
- B. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress.
- C. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems.
- D. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most accurate statement about psychoses is that individuals experiencing it often exhibit limited distress because they are not fully aware of their altered perception of reality. They may not recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive or acknowledge the presence of psychological issues. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not be aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not have insight into their psychological problems. Choice D is incorrect because individuals with psychoses often struggle to differentiate between reality and their altered perceptions.
3. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
- B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
- C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
- D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
4. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Phenelzine
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Olanzapine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.
5. A client displays signs and symptoms indicative of hypochondriasis. The nurse would initially expect to see:
- A. Self-preoccupation
- B. La belle indifference
- C. Fear of physicians
- D. Insight into the source of their fears
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypochondriasis, individuals are excessively preoccupied with and worried about having a serious illness, despite reassurance from medical professionals. This self-preoccupation is a key characteristic of hypochondriasis. 'La belle indifference' refers to a lack of concern or distress about symptoms, which is not typically seen in hypochondriasis. Fear of physicians may be present due to the individual's persistent belief in their illness despite medical reassurance. Insight into the source of their fears is usually lacking in hypochondriasis, as individuals often believe their physical symptoms are evidence of a serious illness.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access