Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
• B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
• C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
• D. The client maintains a stable weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

• A. Memory loss
• B. Weight gain
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Memory loss, particularly short-term memory loss, is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT can affect memory due to its impact on brain function during and after treatment. While the memory issues are often temporary and tend to improve over time, they are important considerations when discussing the risks and benefits of ECT with patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, insomnia, and increased appetite are not common side effects of ECT.

3. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Female
• B. 7 years old
• C. Comorbid autism diagnosis
• D. Outbursts occur at least once a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

4. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:

• A. Temperament
• B. Genetic factors
• C. Resilience
• D. Paradoxical effects of neglect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Christopher's positive outlook, strong school performance, and forming a bond with the neighbor indicate resilience. Resilience refers to the ability to adapt and thrive despite facing adversity, such as being removed from his parents' home due to neglect. His ability to maintain a positive attitude and excel in school despite the challenging circumstances highlights his resilience.

5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Clonazepam
• C. Lithium
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

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