Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with panic disorder is receiving discharge teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid caffeine and other stimulants.
• B. I should take my medication only when I feel anxious.
• C. I should use relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.
• D. I should avoid exercising to prevent triggering anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants is crucial for clients with panic disorder as these substances can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Caffeine can trigger or worsen anxiety, leading to increased heart rate and restlessness. By eliminating stimulants, the client can better manage their anxiety levels and reduce the risk of panic attacks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking medication only when feeling anxious may lead to inconsistent treatment, using relaxation techniques alone may not be sufficient for managing panic disorder, and avoiding exercise can actually be counterproductive as regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and stress levels.

2. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

• A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
• B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
• C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
• D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

3. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Auditory hallucinations
• B. Delusions of grandeur
• C. A flat affect
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delusions of grandeur. Clients with paranoid schizophrenia often experience delusions of grandeur or persecution, auditory hallucinations, and a flat affect. However, the most characteristic finding for paranoid schizophrenia is the presence of delusions, which are fixed false beliefs that are not based in reality. Delusions of grandeur, where individuals believe they are exceptionally powerful or important, are commonly seen in paranoid schizophrenia. Choice A, auditory hallucinations, are more commonly associated with other types of schizophrenia such as paranoid or disorganized schizophrenia. Choice C, a flat affect, is a symptom that can be seen across various types of schizophrenia. Choice D, disorganized speech, is more indicative of disorganized schizophrenia.

5. When a patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine, what is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Suicidal ideation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating fluoxetine therapy in a patient with major depressive disorder, monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial due to the increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behaviors that can occur, especially in the initial phase of treatment. This close monitoring is essential to ensure patient safety and intervene promptly if such symptoms arise. Weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are potential side effects of some medications used to treat depression, but suicidal ideation is the most critical and immediate side effect to monitor for when starting fluoxetine.

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