ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals
1. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen equipment
- B. Incentive spirometer
- C. Pulse oximeter
- D. Sterile dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.
2. What is the best position for examining the rectum?
- A. Prone
- B. Sim's
- C. Knee-chest
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The knee-chest position is the most optimal position for examining the rectum. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their chest resting on it, creating a straight line from the head to the lower back. This position allows for easier access and visualization of the rectal area, making it the preferred choice for rectal examinations. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down and is not ideal for rectal exams as it does not provide good access. Sim's position (choice B) is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed, also not ideal for rectal exams. Lithotomy position (choice D) is lying on the back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, primarily used for gynecological exams and surgery, not for rectal examinations.
3. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?
- A. Optic
- B. Olfactory
- C. Oculomotor
- D. Trochlear
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.
4. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
- B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
- C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
- D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.
5. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:
- A. 0.6 mg
- B. 10 mg
- C. 60 mg
- D. 600 mg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.
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