a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swelling of the arm above the insertion site is concerning as it can indicate complications like thrombosis, which require immediate attention. Redness at the insertion site is common and expected in the initial stages. A bruised area around the insertion site may result from the insertion procedure and is usually not alarming unless it worsens or becomes larger. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range and is not directly related to PICC complications.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.

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