a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

2. A client at risk for osteoporosis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should increase my intake of vitamin D.' Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for calcium absorption, which is essential for bone health and preventing osteoporosis. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (choice A) would be detrimental as weight-bearing activities help improve bone density. Reducing dairy intake (choice C) is not recommended as dairy products are a good source of calcium. While increasing calcium intake (choice D) is important, ensuring sufficient vitamin D levels for proper absorption is equally crucial for bone health.

3. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.

4. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

5. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.

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