Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client prescribed warfarin, which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. aPTT
• B. Platelet count
• C. BUN
• D. PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin is the PT/INR. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and the PT/INR levels indicate the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Therefore, monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and is protected from potential complications related to clotting. Choice A (aPTT) is incorrect because while it measures the clotting time, it is not the preferred test for monitoring warfarin therapy. Choice B (Platelet count) is incorrect as it assesses the number of platelets and not the medication's therapeutic effect. Choice C (BUN) is unrelated to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy and is primarily used to assess kidney function.

2. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bone pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.

3. Which of the following medications is a bronchodilator?

• A. Albuterol
• B. Omeprazole
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Senna

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol is classified as a bronchodilator, which is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma by relaxing the muscles in the airways and increasing airflow to the lungs. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production, while ondansetron is an anti-nausea medication, and senna is a laxative.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

• A. Varicella vaccine
• B. Rubella vaccine
• C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
• D. Measles vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.

5. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.

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