Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can lead to toxicity, which can manifest as various signs and symptoms, including bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect and manage potential toxicity early. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Consume foods rich in potassium.
• C. Take this medication with a meal.
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to dehydration due to increased urination. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is essential to educate the client to monitor these signs and seek medical attention if they occur. Choice A is incorrect because Hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disruption of sleep due to increased urination during the night. Choice B is incorrect because while Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to potassium loss, consuming foods rich in potassium is not a specific instruction related to this medication. Choice C is incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide with a meal is not a specific requirement for its administration.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take these medications with foo '
• B. These medications can turn your stool black.'
• C. These medications can cause photosensitivity.'
• D. The purpose of these medications is to decrease the pH of gastric juices in the stomach.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances.

5. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

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