Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
• B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
• C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
• D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

• A. Follow a 3g sodium diet.
• B. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid per day.
• C. Place the client's lower extremities on two pillows.
• D. Maintain the client's oxygen saturation at 89%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess for infection in a patient post-surgery?

• A. Check the surgical site
• B. Check for fever
• C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
• D. Check the patient's skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for infection in a patient post-surgery, checking the surgical site is crucial. Changes in the appearance of the surgical site, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage, can indicate an infection. While checking for fever (Choice B) is also important as it can be a sign of infection, it is a more general symptom and may not always be present. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice C) and skin color (Choice D) are not typically direct indicators of infection in a post-surgery patient.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 48 hours.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Monitor the client's weight every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Chills.
• D. Distended neck veins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.

Similar Questions