Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
• B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
• C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
• D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
• C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
• D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a meal.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• D. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload in heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Check for edema
• C. Monitor intake and output
• D. Administer diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in managing a patient with fluid overload in heart failure. Weight fluctuations can indicate fluid retention or loss, guiding healthcare professionals in adjusting treatment. While checking for edema (Choice B) and monitoring intake and output (Choice C) are important aspects of patient care, they are not as direct in assessing fluid overload as daily weight monitoring. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is a treatment option based on the assessment of fluid overload, making it a secondary intervention compared to monitoring weight.

5. A client with heart failure is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid overload?

• A. Dry, hacking cough
• B. Bounding peripheral pulses
• C. Decreased urinary output
• D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with heart failure, decreased urinary output is a classic sign of fluid overload. The kidneys try to compensate for the increased volume by reducing urine output, leading to fluid retention. A dry, hacking cough (choice A) is more indicative of heart failure complications like pulmonary edema. Bounding peripheral pulses (choice B) are a sign of increased volume, but not specifically fluid overload. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours (choice D) is not indicative of fluid overload but rather rapid fluid loss.

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