Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
• B. The client develops hiccups.
• C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
• D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

2. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

3. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

• A. A client receives antibiotics 2 hours late.
• B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking morning medications.
• C. A client requests a statin to be administered at 2100.
• D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering antibiotics late must be reported as it can compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. This delay can lead to subtherapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the client's system, potentially reducing its efficacy in combating the infection. Choice B, a client vomiting shortly after taking medication, should be noted but does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is a frequent occurrence. It could indicate a possible adverse reaction or intolerance to the medication. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication slightly earlier, do not involve medication errors or deviations that pose immediate risks to the client's health, so they do not require incident reports.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Sedation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, commonly causes sedation as an adverse effect. Weight gain (choice A) is a potential side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with chlorpromazine. Dry mouth (choice B) is a common anticholinergic side effect of many medications but is not a prominent adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of chlorpromazine.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?

• A. Do you understand the voices are not real?
• B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
• C. Have you tried going to a quiet place when this occurs?
• D. What helps you ignore the voices?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.

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