ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent another heart attack.
- B. I should expect to experience chest pain when I exercise.
- C. I will increase my intake of saturated fats.
- D. I will participate in a cardiac rehabilitation program.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Increasing the intake of saturated fats can raise cholesterol levels, which is not recommended after a myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate statements indicating a good understanding of post-myocardial infarction care. Taking a daily aspirin can help prevent another heart attack, experiencing chest pain with exercise is a common expectation post-myocardial infarction, and participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program is important for recovery and improving heart health.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Place food on the left side of the client's mouth when they are ready to eat
- B. Provide assistance with the client's ADLs
- C. Maintain the client in an upright position
- D. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while they are sitting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while they are sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and provides support for the limb post-stroke. This positioning is important to maintain proper alignment and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing food on the left side of the mouth, providing total assistance with ADLs, and maintaining the client on bed rest do not directly address the specific needs related to unilateral paralysis and dysphagia post right hemispheric stroke.
3. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Perform a neurological assessment
- C. Administer electrolytes
- D. Prepare for a CT scan
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dry, cracked skin.
- B. Lanugo covering the skin.
- C. Vernix caseosa covering the skin.
- D. Creases covering the soles of the feet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lanugo covering the skin. Lanugo, a fine downy hair, is a common finding in newborns delivered prematurely at 32 weeks gestation. Choice A (Dry, cracked skin) is incorrect as premature infants often have translucent and delicate skin. Choice C (Vernix caseosa covering the skin) is incorrect as vernix, a waxy substance, is more commonly seen in full-term newborns. Choice D (Creases covering the soles of the feet) is incorrect as creases on the soles of the feet are a normal finding in term newborns, not specifically related to prematurity.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.
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