ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed an infection based on which of the following findings?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
- C. Heart rate of 92/min
- D. Drainage at the surgical site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F) is indicative of infection postoperatively. Fever is a common sign of infection, and temperatures above the normal range should raise suspicion. The other vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate) may be within an acceptable range, and some drainage at the surgical site can be expected postoperatively. However, the elevated temperature is a more specific indicator of a potential infection that requires immediate attention.
2. A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?
- A. Keep track of calorie intake for food and beverages.
- B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
- C. Schedule meals at 6-hour intervals.
- D. Provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.
3. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- B. Check the client's urinary output.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
4. A client is receiving continuous IV nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Keep calcium gluconate at the bedside.
- B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
- C. Limit IV exposure to light.
- D. Attach an inline filter to the IV tubing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus.
- B. Photosensitivity.
- C. Urinary frequency.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.
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