ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Productive cough with green sputum
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Crackles in the lung bases
- D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
2. When caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, what is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Expel any air bubbles at the top of the prefilled syringe
- B. Massage the injection site to evenly distribute the medication
- C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
- D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, the nurse should inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This site is preferred for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin to reduce the risk of bleeding or injury. Expelling air bubbles, massaging the injection site, or administering an NSAID for discomfort are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications or ineffective medication delivery.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Hypotension
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 4,500/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm3
- D. Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.
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