ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.
3. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will decrease my potassium levels.
- B. I should eat a banana every day to increase my potassium intake.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience a cough.
- D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.
- B. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.' When taking prednisone, clients should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choice B is incorrect because prednisone is usually taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect because clients should not stop taking prednisone abruptly, even if they experience nausea. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be tapered off gradually under healthcare provider guidance instead of being stopped abruptly after 2 weeks.
5. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?
- A. Almonds
- B. Spinach
- C. Yogurt
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
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