Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in a patient receiving digoxin?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Potassium levels should be monitored closely in a patient receiving digoxin to avoid hypokalemia. Digoxin can increase the risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring sodium, calcium, or glucose levels is not specifically necessary for patients on digoxin, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

3. Which diagnostic test is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sputum culture
• C. Skin test (Mantoux)
• D. MRI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST), is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection. This test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin protein derivative under the top layer of the skin and then evaluating the immune system's response to the protein. A positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Chest X-rays are used to detect abnormalities in the lungs caused by TB but are not confirmatory. Sputum culture is used to identify the presence of TB bacteria in the sputum. MRIs are not typically used as a primary diagnostic tool for TB.

4. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
• B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
• D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
• C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
• D. Albumin 4 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.

Similar Questions