a nurse is caring for a client who has a history of heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse preparing to administer a controlled substance is to witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse. This practice is crucial to prevent misuse and ensure accurate documentation. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the controlled substance by oneself without proper witnessing is not in accordance with safety protocols. Choice C is incorrect as leaving a controlled substance unattended in a client's room poses risks of diversion or unauthorized access. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the administration and signing off at the end of the shift is important but does not specifically address the issue of witnessing the waste of a controlled substance, which is a critical step in ensuring proper handling and accountability.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

4. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.

5. A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas analysis of a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following results should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, there is impaired gas exchange, leading to retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) and subsequent respiratory acidosis. A PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg is higher than the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) and is indicative of respiratory acidosis in COPD. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with COPD. PaO2 may be decreased, HCO3 may be elevated to compensate for acidosis, and pH may be lower than 7.35 due to respiratory acidosis in COPD.

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