ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing care for a client in the elevator. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the client's family about the incident.
- B. Notify the client's provider about the incident.
- C. File a complaint with the ethics committee.
- D. Report the incident to the AP's charge nurse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This ensures that the issue is addressed internally and allows for proper handling of the situation. Contacting the client's family about the incident (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it could breach confidentiality and escalate the situation unnecessarily. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the most immediate and effective step to address the issue. Filing a complaint with the ethics committee (Choice C) should be reserved for serious ethical violations, and in this case, reporting to the charge nurse is the more practical and immediate course of action.
2. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 88/min
- B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
- C. Pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10
- D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. INR 2.0
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. aPTT 60 seconds
- D. WBC count 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in a patient receiving digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Potassium levels should be monitored closely in a patient receiving digoxin to avoid hypokalemia. Digoxin can increase the risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring sodium, calcium, or glucose levels is not specifically necessary for patients on digoxin, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
5. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.
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