Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing morning stiffness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid physical activity in the morning.
• B. Encourage the client to take NSAIDs before bedtime.
• C. Apply cold packs to the affected joints in the morning.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises before getting out of bed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to apply cold packs to the affected joints in the morning. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by inflammation, and applying cold packs can help reduce inflammation and stiffness in the joints. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity in the morning (Choice A) may worsen stiffness, as movement is beneficial for joint mobility. While NSAIDs (Choice B) can help with pain and inflammation, applying cold packs directly to the affected joints is more targeted and effective. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) can be helpful, but applying cold packs is the priority for reducing inflammation and stiffness.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
• B. Flat T waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.

3. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• B. Heart rate of 68/min.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?

• A. Do you understand the voices are not real?
• B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
• C. Have you tried going to a quiet place when this occurs?
• D. What helps you ignore the voices?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.

5. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.

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