Nursing Elites

1. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
• B. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.

2. What is the primary purpose of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?

• A. Regulate blood glucose levels
• B. Increase metabolism
• C. Prevent complications
• D. Promote insulin sensitivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Regulate blood glucose levels.' Administering insulin to a patient with diabetes helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, thereby lowering high blood sugar levels. This process aims to prevent hyperglycemia and its associated complications. Choice B, 'Increase metabolism,' is incorrect as the primary role of insulin is not to increase metabolism directly. Choice C, 'Prevent complications,' is partially correct as regulating blood glucose through insulin administration does help prevent complications associated with uncontrolled diabetes, but it is not the primary purpose. Choice D, 'Promote insulin sensitivity,' is incorrect as insulin itself is administered to compensate for the lack of endogenous insulin in diabetic patients, rather than to promote sensitivity to it.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Apples.
• B. White bread.
• C. Bananas.
• D. Grapes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.

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