a nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and a potassium level of 68 meql which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client has hypertension and a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a 12-lead ECG is crucial in this situation to assess cardiac function due to the elevated potassium level. High potassium levels can lead to dangerous arrhythmias, and an ECG helps in detecting any cardiac abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suggesting a salt substitute can further elevate the client's potassium levels. Checking serum sodium levels is not the priority when dealing with high potassium levels. Advising the client to add citrus juices and bananas, which are high in potassium, would worsen the situation.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased anginal pain. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to relieve angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Monitoring for decreased anginal pain is essential as it indicates a therapeutic response to the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as verapamil's primary goal in this context is not to decrease blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety.

3. A client has a prescription for vancomycin 1g IV intermittent infusion over 30 minutes every 12 hours. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.

4. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.

5. A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.

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