ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A community health nurse is providing an educational session on childhood poisoning at a local school. What should the nurse advise as the first action if poisoning occurs?
- A. Call the poison control center
- B. Bring the child to the emergency department (ED)
- C. Induce vomiting
- D. Call an ambulance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the event of poisoning, the recommended first action is to call the poison control center. Poison control specialists can provide immediate guidance on how to manage the situation effectively. Bringing the child to the emergency department (Choice B) may be necessary depending on the severity of the poisoning, but contacting poison control first is crucial for appropriate and timely intervention. Inducing vomiting (Choice C) is not advised in all cases of poisoning and should only be done under the guidance of healthcare professionals. Calling an ambulance (Choice D) may be necessary in some severe cases, but the initial step should be to contact poison control for expert advice.
2. A patient is at risk for impaired skin integrity. What is the priority intervention for the nurse?
- A. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours.
- B. Apply a moisture barrier to the patient's skin.
- C. Massage the patient's skin to promote circulation.
- D. Apply a heating pad to the patient's skin to increase blood flow.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. This intervention is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers and maintaining skin integrity by relieving pressure on bony prominences. Applying a moisture barrier (Choice B) is important for moisture-associated skin damage but is not the priority in this case. Massaging the patient's skin (Choice C) can potentially cause friction and shear, increasing the risk of skin breakdown. Applying a heating pad (Choice D) can lead to burns or thermal injuries, exacerbating skin integrity issues.
3. What are the clinical signs of hyperglycemia in a patient with diabetes mellitus, and how should a nurse respond?
- A. Monitoring blood glucose levels and administering insulin
- B. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia
- C. Fatigue, blurred vision, and fruity breath
- D. Educating the patient on blood glucose monitoring
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct signs of hyperglycemia in a patient with diabetes mellitus are polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger). These symptoms indicate high blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct response for a nurse would be to recognize these signs, monitor blood glucose levels, and administer insulin to manage the hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because it only addresses the response aspect without mentioning the signs. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the classic clinical signs of hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus.
4. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
- A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
- B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
5. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?
- A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
- B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
- C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
- D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.
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