ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.
3. A client is being taught how to perform self-catheterization. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Clean the catheter with alcohol after each use.
- B. Perform self-catheterization while sitting on the toilet.
- C. Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.
- D. Lubricate the catheter tip with petroleum jelly before insertion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.' It is essential to use a new, sterile catheter each time to prevent infection during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the catheter with alcohol may not be sufficient to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect because self-catheterization is typically done in a clean, private area, not necessarily on the toilet. Choice D is incorrect because lubricating the catheter tip with petroleum jelly is a common practice but not as crucial as using a new catheter each time to prevent infection.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. INR 2.0
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. aPTT 60 seconds
- D. WBC count 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.
5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Perform a CT scan
- C. Perform a lumbar puncture
- D. Administer anticoagulants
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.
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