ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
2. What is the appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in cases of myocardial infarction. Nitroglycerin is commonly used for chest pain related to angina but is not the first-line treatment for all types of chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary for comfort or assessment but is not the immediate priority. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should eat more fiber to help with my bowel movements.
- B. I will need to have routine colonoscopies to monitor my condition.
- C. I will limit my intake of whole grains.
- D. I should consume a low-fat diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with Crohn's disease require routine colonoscopies to monitor disease progression and complications. This helps healthcare providers assess the status of the disease and make informed treatment decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while fiber may be beneficial for some digestive conditions, it can exacerbate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice C is incorrect as whole grains can be a good source of nutrients unless they individually trigger symptoms in the client. Choice D is also incorrect since a low-fat diet is not a specific requirement for managing Crohn's disease.
5. What is the best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Monitor edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics is to monitor daily weight. Daily weighing is a precise way to assess changes in fluid status as it reflects variations in total body water. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide as accurate a measurement as daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is essential but does not directly measure fluid balance. Monitoring edema (choice D) is helpful to assess fluid status visually but may not be as sensitive as daily weight measurements in detecting subtle changes in fluid balance.
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