ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Atenolol
- C. Naltrexone
- D. Methadone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth.
- B. Photosensitivity.
- C. Headache.
- D. Urinary retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who practices Orthodox Judaism and is observing the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Provide chicken with cream sauce.
- B. Avoid serving fish with fins and scales.
- C. Provide unleavened bread.
- D. Avoid serving foods containing lamb.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism follow dietary restrictions that include avoiding leavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with these restrictions and ensures the client's observance of the holiday. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not specific dietary requirements related to observing Passover in Orthodox Judaism.
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