Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?

• A. Potassium
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Sodium
• D. Hemoglobin A1C

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: The healthcare professional should review serum creatinine levels before administering metformin to assess kidney function. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and checking serum creatinine helps prevent lactic acidosis, a potential side effect in individuals with impaired renal function. Choice A: Potassium levels are not directly related to the administration of metformin. While monitoring potassium levels is important for some medications, it is not the priority when initiating metformin. Choice C: Sodium levels are not typically assessed specifically before starting metformin. It is not a routine lab test required prior to metformin administration. Choice D: Hemoglobin A1C reflects long-term blood sugar control and is not a lab test that needs to be reviewed before initiating metformin. It is used to monitor diabetes management over time, not for immediate medication administration considerations.

2. When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
• B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
• C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with removal
• D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma to the client. Choice B is incorrect because stimulating peristalsis is not the appropriate action for digitally evacuating stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen can be uncomfortable and ineffective. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the digital evacuation procedure.

3. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's identification band
• B. Verify the provider's prescription
• C. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• D. Obtain the client's vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs is to check the client's identification band. This step is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered to the right client, preventing any errors or adverse reactions. Verifying the provider's prescription, priming the IV tubing, and obtaining the client's vital signs are important steps in the process but should follow the initial identification check to prioritize patient safety.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Maintain the oxytocin infusion.
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• D. Provide reassurance to the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds, this pattern indicates hyperstimulation, which can be harmful to the fetus. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is essential to prevent further harm. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, maintaining it would continue the risk, and providing reassurance to the client, although important, does not address the need for immediate action to ensure the safety of the fetus.

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