a nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client's legs elevated is the appropriate action to prevent venous thromboembolism following a total knee arthroplasty. Elevating the legs helps promote circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Placing a pillow under the client's knees may provide comfort but does not address the specific postoperative complication. Flexing the client's knee every 2 hours may be contraindicated as excessive movement can disrupt the surgical site. Applying heat to the operative knee is not recommended immediately postoperatively as it can increase swelling and discomfort.

2. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.

4. A client is receiving chemotherapy and is being taught about preventing infection. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients receiving chemotherapy are instructed to avoid fresh fruits and vegetables to lower the risk of infection. Fresh produce may harbor bacteria or other pathogens that could be harmful to individuals with compromised immune systems. Taking the temperature daily may be important but is not directly related to preventing infection. Limiting high-protein foods is not necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions due to the treatment plan. Increasing the intake of high-fat foods is not recommended during chemotherapy as a high-fat diet may lead to other health issues.

5. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

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