ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum sodium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.
2. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult client with a serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium, is used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected range in cases of hypocalcemia. It helps correct the deficiency by supplementing calcium in the body.
4. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?
- A. Constipation
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Headache
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.
5. When taking Digoxin, low levels of what can cause toxicity?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Sodium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low potassium levels can lead to Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the sodium-potassium pump. When potassium levels are low, there is an increased risk of Digoxin binding and toxicity. Choice B (Calcium) is incorrect because low calcium levels are not directly linked to Digoxin toxicity. Choice C (Sodium) is incorrect as low sodium levels do not cause Digoxin toxicity. Choice D (Magnesium) is incorrect as low magnesium levels do not contribute to Digoxin toxicity.
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