Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
• B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
• C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. 1+ protein in the urine
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

3. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

4. How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

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