Nursing Elites

1. A client has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. Which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Clamp the chest tube during ambulation
• B. Keep the collection chamber below the level of the chest
• C. Add sterile water to the water-seal chamber
• D. Empty the collection chamber every 12 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system is to add sterile water to the water-seal chamber. This is necessary to maintain the correct water level for proper chest tube function. Clamping the chest tube during ambulation (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to complications by obstructing drainage. Keeping the collection chamber below the level of the chest (Choice B) is incorrect because it should be kept below the chest to facilitate drainage. Emptying the collection chamber every 12 hours (Choice D) is incorrect as it should be emptied whenever it reaches the fill line or as per facility policy, not on a fixed time schedule.

2. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Check urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

3. A client taking haloperidol is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increase the dose of haloperidol.
• B. Administer benztropine.
• C. Administer naloxone.
• D. Monitor blood pressure before administering the next dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms while taking haloperidol is to administer benztropine. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice A) would exacerbate the symptoms rather than alleviate them. Administering naloxone (Choice C) is not indicated for extrapyramidal symptoms. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the primary intervention for managing extrapyramidal symptoms.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Proteinuria of 1+.
• B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
• D. Nonpitting ankle edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should inject this medication once a day, at the same time each day.
• B. You should expect your blood glucose level to increase immediately after administration.
• C. You should rotate injection sites between your abdomen and thigh.
• D. You should inject this medication with your meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to inject insulin glargine once a day, at the same time each day. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect because insulin glargine does not cause an immediate increase in blood glucose levels. Option C is important for preventing lipodystrophy but is not specific to insulin glargine administration. Option D is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically administered at the same time each day, regardless of meals.

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