Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with a history of depression who is experiencing a situational crisis. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
• B. Notify the client's support system.
• C. Help the client identify personal strengths.
• D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Confirming the client's perception of the event is crucial in understanding how they are interpreting the crisis situation. This helps the nurse gain insight into the client's perspective, emotions, and needs. By validating the client's perception, the nurse can establish trust and rapport, which are essential in providing effective support during a crisis. Notifying the client's support system (Choice B) may be important but should come after understanding the client's perspective. Helping the client identify personal strengths (Choice C) and teaching relaxation techniques (Choice D) are valuable interventions but should follow the initial step of confirming the client's perception to ensure individualized care.

2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing bone loss. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take a calcium supplement once a day.
• B. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Walk for 30 minutes 3 times per week.
• D. Increase intake of high-phosphorus foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Walk for 30 minutes 3 times per week.' Walking is a weight-bearing exercise that helps prevent bone loss and improve overall health in clients with osteoporosis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is essential for bone health, simply taking a supplement is not sufficient for preventing bone loss. Option B is incorrect because weight-bearing exercises are actually beneficial for improving bone density and strength. Option D is incorrect because high-phosphorus foods do not play a significant role in preventing bone loss in osteoporosis.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
• B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
• C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
• D. Use a moisture barrier ointment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

• A. Chlamydia
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

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