ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
- A. Pacing and restlessness
- B. Verbal threats
- C. History of violence
- D. Substance abuse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
2. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Tardive dyskinesia
- B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mindfulness meditation.' Side effects of antipsychotic medications include tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Mindfulness meditation is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choices A, B, and D are all potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication. Hyperglycemia can occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, particularly the second-generation ones.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings should the professional expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
- B. Compulsive behaviors
- C. Delusions of grandeur
- D. Avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve inflated beliefs about one's own importance or abilities, are not typically associated with OCD. Therefore, the presence of delusions of grandeur would not be an expected finding in a client with OCD. Choices A, B, and D are all typical features of OCD and would be expected findings during the assessment of a client with this disorder.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
- B. Compulsive behaviors
- C. Delusions of grandeur
- D. Avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), common findings include recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve having an exaggerated sense of power, importance, or identity, are not typically associated with OCD. It is important to differentiate between the specific characteristics of OCD and other mental health conditions to provide accurate care and interventions for clients.
5. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Monitoring for signs of infection
- B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
- C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
- D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.
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