ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
- A. Pacing and restlessness
- B. Verbal threats
- C. History of violence
- D. Substance abuse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
2. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't a healthcare professional expect to assess in a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
- A. Excessive worry
- B. Muscle tension
- C. Increased energy
- D. Restlessness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include excessive worry, muscle tension, restlessness, and irritability. Increased energy is not typically associated with GAD; instead, clients often experience fatigue due to the persistent anxiety and worry that characterize the disorder.
3. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?
- A. Clonazepam
- B. Buspirone
- C. Propranolol
- D. Hydroxyzine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.
4. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Short-term memory loss
- B. Headache
- C. Confusion
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can have side effects such as short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, particularly antipsychotics.
5. In the care plan of a male patient diagnosed with a dissociative disorder, the nursing diagnosis of ineffective coping is included. Which behavior demonstrated by the patient supports this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Has no memory of the physical abuse he endured.
- B. Using both alcohol and marijuana.
- C. Often reports being unaware of surroundings.
- D. Reports feelings of 'not really being here.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using substances like alcohol and marijuana can be a sign of ineffective coping mechanisms in patients with dissociative disorders. Substance abuse is often used as a maladaptive way to cope with stress, trauma, or other underlying issues. Choices A, C, and D may be related to dissociative symptoms but do not directly reflect ineffective coping behaviors as substance abuse does.
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