Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?

• A. Tremors
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.

2. A client is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and a nurse is planning care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse exclude from the care plan?

• A. Allowing the client to perform rituals initially
• B. Discouraging the client from washing their hands
• C. Monitoring for suicidal ideation
• D. Providing a structured schedule of activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for suicidal ideation. When caring for a client with OCD, interventions should include allowing the client to perform rituals initially, setting limits on the time allowed for rituals, encouraging the client to verbalize feelings, and providing a structured schedule of activities. Monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial in assessing the client's safety and mental health status, but it is not a direct intervention specific to managing OCD symptoms.

3. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

4. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.

• A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
• B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
• C. They are used in an effort to increase anxiety.
• D. They are protective devices for the superego.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.

5. Which of the following are common symptoms of schizophrenia? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Delusions
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Organized speech
• D. Catatonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common symptoms of schizophrenia include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and catatonia. Organized speech is not a typical symptom of schizophrenia. In schizophrenia, individuals often exhibit disorganized or incoherent speech patterns, rather than organized speech. Euphoria is not typically associated with schizophrenia, making it an incorrect choice.

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