Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?

• A. Tremors
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.

2. A client has been diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Distrust of others
• B. Reluctance to confide in others
• C. Suspiciousness of others
• D. Jealousy of others

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with paranoid personality disorder commonly display a pervasive distrust of others. They often interpret benign actions of others as hostile or malicious, leading to suspicion and a belief that others have malevolent intentions. While choices B, C, and D may be present in individuals with different personality disorders or issues, distrust of others is a hallmark feature of paranoid personality disorder, making it the correct behavior to expect in these clients.

3. When using therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to:

• A. Engage in a quiet meditation
• B. Ask simple questions even if the patient will not answer
• C. Use the technique of making observations
• D. Simply sit quietly and leave when the patient falls asleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using the technique of making observations is an effective method of managing silence when communicating with a withdrawn patient who has major depression. This approach can encourage the patient to engage and feel understood without the pressure to respond, fostering a therapeutic connection and helping the patient open up at their own pace.

4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

5. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, 'How can I go to work if I can't afford childcare?' What is the nurse's initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?

• A. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
• B. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
• C. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
• D. Assess the facts of the situation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's initial step should be to assess the facts of the situation. By gathering accurate information about the client's circumstances, the nurse can better understand the problem and make informed decisions moving forward. This foundational assessment is crucial before proceeding to formulate goals, evaluate outcomes, or consider risks and benefits. Options A, B, and C involve steps that should follow the initial assessment of the situation, making them less suitable as the initial action in this context.

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