after 1 week of continuous mental confusion an elderly african american client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. A client with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, identifying and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of the treatment process. This cognitive restructuring helps individuals with major depressive disorder to develop healthier thinking patterns and cope more effectively with their emotions, which ultimately leads to improvement in their mental health. Therefore, when a client is able to identify and challenge negative thoughts, it indicates that they are actively engaging in the therapeutic process and making progress towards better mental well-being.

3. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.

4. Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for social anxiety disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.

5. Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Drowsiness is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety. Benzodiazepines work by depressing the central nervous system, which can lead to drowsiness as a side effect. This sedative effect is often desired in the treatment of anxiety disorders, but individuals should be cautious when engaging in activities that require alertness, such as driving, while taking these medications. Insomnia, weight gain, and increased appetite are not typically associated with benzodiazepines; instead, drowsiness and sedation are more common side effects.

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