Nursing Elites

1. A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about intimate partner violence. Which response by the students indicates no further teaching is needed?

• A. Alaska Native women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
• B. Caucasian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.
• C. African American women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
• D. Asian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alaska Native women do report the highest rate of intimate partner violence. This statistic is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of to provide culturally sensitive care and interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect statements. While it is essential to understand disparities in intimate partner violence rates among different populations, in this context, the focus is on recognizing the accurate information provided about Alaska Native women.

2. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

3. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

5. In treating a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), what is the most appropriate goal of this therapy?

• A. To explore the patient's childhood experiences.
• B. To reduce the patient's symptoms through medication.
• C. To change the patient's negative thought patterns.
• D. To improve the patient's social skills.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is to change the patient's negative thought patterns. This therapy focuses on identifying and modifying distorted thinking patterns that contribute to anxiety. Exploring childhood experiences (Choice A) may be part of therapy, but the primary focus is on present thoughts and behaviors. While medication (Choice B) can help manage symptoms, CBT aims to address the root cause through cognitive restructuring. Improving social skills (Choice D) is not the primary goal of CBT for GAD, although it may be a secondary benefit as confidence improves with reduced anxiety.

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